Difference between revisions of "Orthogonality relation for cosine on (0,pi)"
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Revision as of 22:08, 19 December 2017
Theorem
The following formula holds for $m,n \in \{0,1,2,\ldots\}$ with $m\neq n$: $$\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi} \cos(mt)\cos(nt) \mathrm{d}t=0.$$
Proof
References
- 1978: T.S. Chihara: An Introduction to Orthogonal Polynomials ... (previous) ... (next) $(1.2)$
