Difference between revisions of "Barnes G"

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(Created page with "The Barnes $G$ function is defined by the following Weierstrass factorization: $$G(1+z)=(2\pi)^{\frac{z}{2}} \exp \left( - \dfrac{z+z^2(1+\gamma)}{2} \right) \displaystyle...")
 
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$$G(1+z)=(2\pi)^{\frac{z}{2}} \exp \left( - \dfrac{z+z^2(1+\gamma)}{2} \right) \displaystyle\prod_{k=1}^{\infty} \left\{ \left( 1+\dfrac{z}{k} \right)^k \exp \left( \dfrac{z^2}{2k}-z \right) \right\},$$
 
$$G(1+z)=(2\pi)^{\frac{z}{2}} \exp \left( - \dfrac{z+z^2(1+\gamma)}{2} \right) \displaystyle\prod_{k=1}^{\infty} \left\{ \left( 1+\dfrac{z}{k} \right)^k \exp \left( \dfrac{z^2}{2k}-z \right) \right\},$$
 
where $\exp$ denotes the [[exponential function]] and $\gamma$ denotes the [[Euler-Mascheroni constant]].
 
where $\exp$ denotes the [[exponential function]] and $\gamma$ denotes the [[Euler-Mascheroni constant]].
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=Properties=
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<div class="toccolours mw-collapsible mw-collapsed">
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<strong>Theorem:</strong> The following formula holds:
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$$G(z+1)=\Gamma(z)G(z)$$
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with normalization $G(1)=1$.
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<div class="mw-collapsible-content">
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<strong>Proof:</strong> █
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</div>
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</div>
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<div class="toccolours mw-collapsible mw-collapsed">
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<strong>Corollary:</strong> The following values hold:
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$$G(n) = \left\{ \begin{array}{ll}
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0 &; n=-1,-2,\ldots \\
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\displaystyle\prod_{i=0}^{n-2} i!&; n=0,1,2,\ldots
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\end{array} \right.$$
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<div class="mw-collapsible-content">
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<strong>Proof:</strong> █
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</div>
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</div>

Revision as of 00:34, 21 March 2015

The Barnes $G$ function is defined by the following Weierstrass factorization: $$G(1+z)=(2\pi)^{\frac{z}{2}} \exp \left( - \dfrac{z+z^2(1+\gamma)}{2} \right) \displaystyle\prod_{k=1}^{\infty} \left\{ \left( 1+\dfrac{z}{k} \right)^k \exp \left( \dfrac{z^2}{2k}-z \right) \right\},$$ where $\exp$ denotes the exponential function and $\gamma$ denotes the Euler-Mascheroni constant.

Properties

Theorem: The following formula holds: $$G(z+1)=\Gamma(z)G(z)$$ with normalization $G(1)=1$.

Proof:

Corollary: The following values hold: $$G(n) = \left\{ \begin{array}{ll} 0 &; n=-1,-2,\ldots \\ \displaystyle\prod_{i=0}^{n-2} i!&; n=0,1,2,\ldots \end{array} \right.$$

Proof: